Paul says (in verse 25) that Circumcision has value if you observe the law. To what degree must we observe the law in order to be acceptable to God?
In order to be acceptable to God we must observe the law perfectly.
Deuteronomy
27:26 - Cursed is the man who does not uphold the words
of this law by carrying
them out.
Galatians
3:10 - All who rely on
observing the law are under a curse, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who does not continue to do everything written in the Book of the Law."
James
What value would circumcision have to a Jew who observed the Mosaic Law
perfectly?
Circumcision would be part of the Jews perfect obedience to the Law, since it was required by the Law.
If a Jew were to observe the Law (perfectly), then outward
physical circumcision would be a true reflection of his inward spiritual
condition.
The removal of physical flesh from the body would be a picture of the removal of the domination and
condemnation of the flesh (that is, sin) in his heart.
Who do you think Paul has in mind (in verse 26) when he refers to those
who are not circumcised?
The Gentiles
How is it that (in verse 26) those who are not circumcised [physically] will be regarded as though they were circumcised if keep
the law's requirements (perfectly)?
Because even though they are not physically circumcised, if they were to keep the laws
requirements perfectly, they would be
demonstrating that they had the spiritual reality conveyed by
circumcision - the circumcision of the heart.
What is Paul referring to (in verse 27) when he talks about the written code?
The Old Testament Law
What group of people does Paul have in mind (in verse 27) when he refers to you
who . . . have the written code and circumcision?
The Jews
What does Paul mean (in verse 27) when he says that the one
who is not circumcised physically [i.e., the Gentile] and yet obeys the law
will condemn
[the
Jew]? Condemn in what way?
Condemn by contrast, the Gentile who obeys the law will make the Jew (who did not obey the Law) look that much worse considering the advantages that the Jew had over the Gentile (because the Jews had
the scriptures, the rite of circumcision, etc.)
Matthew
12:41 - The men
of Nineveh will stand
up at the judgment with this generation and condemn it; for they repented at the preaching of
Jonah, and now one greater than Jonah is here.
Matthew
12:42 - The Queen of the South will rise at the judgment with this generation and condemn it; for she came from the ends of the
earth to listen to Solomon's wisdom, and now one greater than Solomon is here.
In this context, what does it mean (in verse 28) for a man to only be
a Jew outwardly?
A Jew who is only a Jew outwardly is one who:
Was a physical descendant of Abraham
Heard the Mosaic Law
Was physically circumcised
But :
Did not obey the Law
Did not follow in the example of his father Abrahams faith
Had an uncircumcised heart
Why does Paul say (in verse 28) that circumcision
[is not] merely outward and physical?
Because circumcision, while being an outward physical act, was designed to
portray an inward spiritual reality: the circumcision of the
heart.
According to verse 29 how does a man receive the circumcision of the
heart and
how does a man not receive the circumcision of the
heart?
A man receives the circumcision of the heart by the power of the Holy
Spirit not by trying to keep the Law (written code).